2021届淄博市沂源县第一中学高三英语下学期期末考试试题及答案
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2021届淄博市沂源县第一中学高三英语下学期期末考试试题及答案第一部分阅读(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项
A
The COVID -19 pandemic has affected all aspects of life, including the way we travel. But for those who are looking to expand their horizons while still staying safe, the following three travel trends in 2021 may provide inspirations. Let’s take a look.
Staycation
With many travel restrictions during the pandemic, people preferred traveling to nearby places in 2020. This trend continues in 2021. According to search data, 62 percent of people are interested in taking a vacation within driving distance of home. People who live in large cities want to get back in touch with nature. Travelers are looking for places different from their everyday accommodations, for example, farm stays, villas and cottages.
Pod travel
While 2020 saw a rise in solo travel and isolated adventures, 2021 shows that people want to be more connected. “Pod travel”, or gathering in isolated spaces with loved ones, is growing in popularity. 85 percent of survey respondents favor traveling with family or friends, and over half of the trips searched include three or more people. Pod travel is here to stay for those who want to safely be together while reducing risks associated with socializing with others.
Remote working and traveling
Many people worked and learned from home in 2020 because of the pandemic. Remote working blurs the line between working and traveling. There was a 128 percent increase in the mention of phrases such as “relocation”, “relocate”, “remote work” and “trying a new neighborhood”. People are actively booking longer stays (e. g. two plus week trips) in small to mid—size cities with access to immersive natural surroundings and wide—open spaces.
1.What can we learn about Staycation?
A.Travelling to the countryside.
B.Taking an isolated adventure.
CHaving holidays in nearby places. D.Staying indoors all by oneself.
2.What’s special about Pod travel?
A.Traveling alone.
B.Traveling far away.
C.Traveling while working.
D.Traveling with loved ones.
3.Where might we find the text in a magazine?
A.Medicine.
cation.
C.Tourism
D.Career.
B
For as long as I can remember, my body and I have shared a relationship of discontent. Growing up, I was skinnier than the other kids and at five I was told I wasn't attractive and that I must put on some weight. But no matter how much I ate, I stayed thin for years until adolescence. Then I started putting on weight almost immediately. I remember feeling happy as I began to fill out. However, my joy didn't last long.
I was thirteen when I was first called fat. Friends and neighbours would make jokes on my big size. As I entered my late teens, I had completely lost confidence in my body and, subsequently, in myself. Having failed to live up to conventional beauty standards, I was convinced that if I wanted to be loved, I needed to offer more, doing anything to please everyone around.
I entered adulthood thinking I wasn't “enough”—an idea that was seeded not only by the fact that “skinny” is celebrated, but also by the language associated with accounts of losing weight—selfimprovement, discipline—all virtues. Being fat quickly categorizes you as lazy and undisciplined. Consumed by thoughts of the way my body looked, I didn't notice the other ways my body needed attention. I failed to realize, for example, that my period was much heavier and more painful than ever before. Actually I developed a rare disease and later I had two surgeries.
I was always made to feel that my weight was the root of a lot of problems in my life; I have learnt this is not true. After a lot of selfreflection and some professional help, I realized I never learnt to like myself. While two decades of selfhatred cannot be undone overnight, I have taken first steps to acceptance.
I am now much lighter than before, in body and mind. There are days I find voices on social media saying I am too fat to be loved or to be worthy, but I am learning not to focus on that thought for long. As long as I like myself, just the way I am, opinions at the end of the day are just water off a duck's back.
4. What can we learn about the author from the first two paragraphs?
A. She could change her weight at will.
B. She had different beauty standards from others.
C. She tried to love others to build her confidence.
D. She was greatly influenced by others' opinions.
5. Why did the author think she wasn't “enough”?
A. She was poorly disciplined.
B. She failed to celebrate “skinny”.
C. She was labelled as lazy for her weight.
D. She put on more weight after entering adulthood.
6. What caused the author to make a change?
A. Her lighter body.
B. A troublesome illness.
C. Popular beauty standards.
D. Others' critical comments.
7. What is the best title for the text?
A. Beauty matters.
B. Opinions vary.
C. Worth your weight.
D. Beyond your limits.
C
Children's average daily time spent watching television or using mobile device increased from 53 minutes at age 12 months to more than 150 minutes at 3 years, according toan analysis by researchers at the National Institutes of Health (NIH). By age 8, children were more likely to log the highest amount of screen time if they had been in home-based children or were born to first-time mothers.
“Our results indicate that screen habits begin early, ”said Edwina Yeung, an investigator in National Institute of Child Health and Human Development (NICHD).“This finding suggests that interventions(干涉) to reduce screen time could have a better chance of success if introduced early.”
In the research, mothers of 4, 000 children responded to questions on their kids' media habits when they were 12, 18, 24, 30, and 36 months of age.
TheAmericanAcademyof Pediatrics recommends avoiding digital media exposure for children under 18 months of age, introducing children 18 to 24 months of age to screen media slowly, and limiting screen time to an hour a day for children from 2 to 5 years of age. In the current study, researchers found that 87% of the children had screen time exceeding (超过) these recommendations. However, while screen time increased throughout toddlerhood, by age 7 and 8, screen time fell to under 1.5 hours per day. The researchers believe this decrease relates to time consumed by school-related activities.
The study authors classified the children into two groups based on how much their average daily screen time increased from age 1 to age 3. The first group, 73% of the total had the lowest increase, from an average of nearly 51 minutes a day to nearly an hour and 47 minutes a day. The second group, 27% of the total, had the highest
increase, from nearly 37 minutes of screen time a day to about 4 hours a day. Higher levels of parental education were associated with lower odds of inclusion in the second group.
8. Who use mobile device longest according to the NIH's analysis?
A. 10-year-old born to first-time mothers.
B. 3-year-old children in low income families.
C. 8-year-old children in home-based childcare.
D. 1-year-old children with parents poorly educated.
9. What does the research suggest according to Edwina?
A. Parents should stop their children using media.
B. Parents should limit the use of digital media themselves.
C. Parents should reduce their children's screen time earlier.
D. Parents should avoid their children using digital media at infancy (婴儿期).
10. Why does children's screen time fall when they age 7 and 8?
A. They are studying at school.
B. They can control themselves.
C. They are tired of using them.
D. They are forbidden to use them.
11. Which of the following may be the best title?
A. Keep Away from Media
B. Screen Habits Begin Early
C. Urgency of Parental Education
D. Harm of Home-based Childcare
D
The British poet Matthew Byrne moved to Beijing in 2013 and felt that the capital city's poetry scene was lacking.His obsession(痴迷)for starting poetryevents led to the foundation of the Spittoon Collective in May 2015.“At that time,the literary activity in Beijing was The Bookworm based in Sanlitun,”Byrne says.While some of Beijing's literary institutions would go on to close in the fall of 2019,Spittoon would continue to grow as a community for poets and writers,as well as musicians and others in the creative scene.Byrne describes the Spittoon Collective as a platform for people to share ideas,from literary works to different forms of art,with projects developing from the creative energy within the community.Spittoon originally started as a poetry night at the Mado Bar in Dongcheng District 's Baochao Hutong.Byrne says,“In Beijing,you have these wonderful hutongs,ancient structures where you can walk down and visit cool bars,so I thought it would be good to have a poetry event as it seemed like poetry belonged naturally to this area.”
He adds,“The objective now is to discover Chinese voices and broadcast them to the rest of the world.We create a kindof theme park-like atmosphere where every Thursday is occupied by a different literary style or art form.”
The readings would mainly be in English,but with an international community,a new section called“Poetry-in-Translation”was started,which featured works in Chinese,French,Arabic,Russian,Spanish and other languages.
Joining organized activities like Spittoon can be a major help for those caught up in a boring life.And it's especially important for the people who have moved to China as they need to buildnew relationships while living in a different country.
12. What can we know about the Spittoon Collective?
A. It was closed in 2019.
B. It was set up in 2013 in Beijing.
C. It's popular with literature lovers.
D. It's a community just for foreigners.
13. Why did Byrne start the Spittoon Collective in Baochao Hutong?
A. To attract students' love of poetry.
B. To expandChina's literature globally.
C. To makeBeijing's hutongs famous.
D. To combine poetry with the hutong.
14. What effect would the Spittoon Collective have on Chinese culture?
A. Beneficial.
B. Negative.
C. Challenging.
D. Controversial.
15. What is the author's attitude to the Spittoon Collective?
A. Unclear.
B. Intolerant.
C. Doubtful.
D. Favorable.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
选项中有两项为多余选项
Dealing With Strict Parents
Sometimes parents set rules because they fear for their children's safety, because they don't think that their children can make it for themselves or even to stay in control or to bring about a desired outcome or simply because they can. Regardless of why parents set rules, teens must learn to live within these guidelines,____16____?
Meet in the middle
Often teenagers don't recognize that they have strict parents until they brush up against a rule that they don't like.____17____, don't bother yelling and screaming about the unfairness of it all because chances are your parents will ignore you until you yell yourself hoarse(嘶哑的). Instead, meet your parents in the middle. Ask them to sit down with you to discuss.
____18____
If your past behaviour leaves your parents rolling their eyes at your level of responsibility, offer to show that you are serious about the compromises that you have suggested.____19____, but rather let your parents see your intentions in your actions.
Stay calm and focused
In order to succeed in dealing with strict parents, you'll need to show not only that you are serious about changes in their rules,____20____. Stay calm and focused at all times when discussing your parents' rules.
A. If this is the case for you
B. Show that you are serious
C. if you are dealing with strict parents
D. Don't just give them empty promises
E. but that you can be a seriousteen as well
F. But what happens if parents are overly strict
G. Are there any mistakes that you should avoid
第二部分语言运用(共两节,满分45分)
第一节(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项Last Monday, to prepare a picnic, I decided to go into a superstore. I parked my car and went into the superstore, which was a____21____one. After 45 minutes of____22____to just get some tomatoes, cheese and 3 toothpicks, I got to the cashier line (收银员线), a bit____23____by the time I spent to get 3____24____. I wondered why I did not go to a small local store.
After 15 minutes of waiting in the line, the woman____25____me calls me, “Hey... you only have 3 articles?____26____before me, I have more items than you!”
It wasn’t the first time it happened to me.____27____her initiative (主动提议) was disarming, as well as was her____28____(she did not wear any____29____, so I could see it). Not knowing what else to do, I accepted her________30________. We chitchatted a bit waiting for the________31________ahead of us to finish—she
was unbelievably________32________. Then I thanked her, giving her back my brightest smile.
Getting back in my car, I rethought about that________33________moment, and realized that she________34________my day. In the meantime, I wondered how to give it back to her. No doubt it was quite________35________, so I considered how to pay it forward to someone else.
While________36________, I realized that she saved me 10 minutes. And while I was driving at 70 mph, I reduced my________37________to 55 mph. My fuel consumption sharply________38________by 35%.
I________39________part of the 10 minutes that the woman offered me, but it was a way to________40________her and do a small thing for the environment.
21. A.huge B.empty C.well-decorated D.crowded
22. A.wandering B.driving C.shopping D.relaxing
23. A.excited B.tired C.unsatisfied D.embarrassed
24. A.boxes B.articles C.parcels D.choices
25. A.in front of B.next to C.beyond D.behind
26. A.Stop B.Cross C.Rush D.Pass
27. A.But B.So C.And D.Or
28. A.smile B.answer C.voice D.gesture
29. A.necklace B.mask C.earring D.makeup
30. A.permission B.excuse C.explanation D.offering
31. A.waiters B.customers C.cashiers D.neighbors
32. A.smart B.pleasant C.patient D.generous
33. A.good B.familiar C.important D.romantic
34. A.stole B.ruined C.made D.occupied
35. A.unbelievable B.unnecessary C.meaningless D.impossible
36. A.bargaining B.leaving C.packing D.driving
37. A.fuel B.price C.speed D.time
38. A.took off B.rose up C.dropped down D.cooled down
39. A.reused B.relost C.saved D.wasted
40. A.encourage B.thank C.remind D.repay
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式
A bird habitat can be a natural or man-made area____41.____(provide) birds with an environment that supplies food and water.
Natural bird habitats are most commonly found____42.____there is an ample supply of water for drinking, swimming, and bathing. Birds that hunt for food in the waters of lakes, ponds, or the ocean require access____43.____available water sources.
A man-made bird habitat may____44.____(design) with a focus on conservation and____45.____(protect) for local bird species. Endangered species may be placed in man-made regulated habitats in an effort to protect them.
The advantage of a man-made bird habitat____46.____(be) that it provides a shelter throughout the seasons. Birds raising their young in such a habitat will most likely return____47.____following year. The young of these birds, at maturity, will likely return to the same habitat____48.____(begin) the process of nesting and raising their young.
Nesting areas in bird habitats are specific to the species. Some species prefer to nest in high treetops, while other species nest____49.____(direct) on the ground. Some birds may nest on a beach to be near food sources, while other birds prefer_____50._____(hide) places among tree branches.
第四部分写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节短文改错(满分10分)
51.假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。
文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。
每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除:把多余的词用斜线(∧)划掉。
修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。
Last week, I watched a movie, namingA Dog’s Way Homefrom Sony Pictures, what mainly tells about dogs at animal shelters. Through the movie, I learned that much of those dogs have to be put to the death if they aren’t adopted. The followed day I told my parents that I wanted to visit to the animal shelter in our city and take a dog home. They strong supported my idea of adopting a dog and we choose a brown one at last. I hope that more dogs at animal shelters can find their permanently home. I also hope that dog owner will keep their pets instead giving them up.
第二节书面表达(满分25分)
52.假定你是李华。
你的好友Chris从微信朋友圈(Wechat Moments)了解到你进入了高三,写信向你
了解你的学习生活情况。
请给他回信,内容包括:
1.学习生活;
2.学习规划;
3.你的感受。
注意:1.词数不少于100;
2.开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
Dear Chris
_____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____
Yours
Li Hua
参考答案
1. C
2. D
3. C
4. D
5. C
6. B
7. C
8. C 9. C 10. A 11. B
12. C 13. D 14. A 15. D
16. F 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. E
21. A 22. C 23. C 24. B 25. A 26. D 27. A 28. A 29. B 30. D 31. B 32.
B 33. A 34.
C 35.
D 36. D 37. C 38. C 39. B 40. D
41. providing
42. where 43. to
44. be designed
45. protection
46. is 47. the
48. to begin
49. directly
50. hidden
51.(1).naming→named;
(2).what→which;
(3).much→many;
(4).去掉death前的the;
(5).followed→following;
(6).strong→strongly;
(7).choose→chose;
(8).permanently→permanent;
(9).owner→owners;
(10).在instead后加of
52.略。